Mark’s 1000 word rebuttal-- Posted:
Sat May 08, 2004 5:28 pm
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Romans 5-2nd Edition
Papasmurph argued in his rebuttal to Micah’s opening
statement, that the entire human race has Jesus as its “spiritual head”. He
additional accused Micah of advocating a “restricted headship” because Micah
rightly noted the context and applied the “alls” in Christ, to the elect. He
said:
Quote: |
In Romans 5:12-21 Paul uses Adam, as a type of Christ. But
Adam was not a saviour was he? No, he is only a type of Christ because he is
the federal head of the human race (physically), while Christ is federal head
of the human race (spiritually). In Micah's interpretation Jesus has a lesser
headship. For Adam is head of the whole race but Jesus is only head of the
elect. This restricted headship does not fit the scope of Romans 5. |
In contradiction to his
own rebuttal however, Papasmurph cited L.A. Mott approvingly, saying:
Quote: |
(Verse 17) The effects of Christ's obedience is “much more”
comprehensive because the resulting justification covers the "one
transgression" and the "many transgressions." By the
transgression of the one physical death reigned through the one (unconditionally).
"Much more, those who receive (conditionally) the abundance of grace
(the reconciliation) and the gift of righteousness (forgiveness and being
counted righteous by God) will reign in life through One, Jesus. “The effect
of Adam’s sin comes upon all when they are joined to Adam (by physical
birth); the effect of Christ’s act of obedience is potentially for all, but
is only actually experienced by those who are joined to Christ in baptism
(cf. 6:3). (L.A. Mott, Life Through One Man: Jesus Christ the Second Adam,
58) |
Looking at the citation from
Mott, it is clear he too limits the all of vs. 17 to those that are in Christ.
Mott posits the same position that Micah posited in his opening statement. This
is the same position Papasmurph referred to as “restricted headship”. So
Papasmurph, which is it? Is the “all” in Romans 5 “restricted”, or not? You
have argued for two contradictory positions. You have refuted yourself.
Secondly, with regards to Romans 5:12-21, Papasmurph’s
answer to our question is completely arbitrary. The “all’s” in verse 17 refer
to those in Christ, and those in Adam. But the “all’s” in verses 18 and 19
refer to all of mankind without exception. Upon what basis does Papasmurph make
this distinction? What in the context gives him the right to differentiate
between the “all’s” in vs. 17 and the ones on verses 18 and 19? I can see
nothing that allows for Papasmurph to make the distinction he is making. I
truth the reader will see so as well.
Thirdly, Papasmurph inserts numerous statements that the
accomplishments in Romans 5 are “conditional” while others are “unconditional”.
This is clear eisegesis. There is nothing in the context of the passage, nor is
there anything in the grammar of language that requires us to insert these “conditional”
and “unconditional” markers in the text. In fact, upon the Calvinist
understanding of Christ’s ability to be a perfect savior, these passages make
perfect sense without Papasmurph reading anything into them. None of the
effects of the sin of Adam are conditional. No man ever met a condition to
receive the punishment for the sin of Adam. Likewise, the effect of the work of
Christ is unconditional. Christ perfectly provided justification of life for
all who are in Him. All who are in Him are made righteous. Papasmurph simply
inserts unilaterally (again) what he needs to prove.
Fourthly, Papasmurph pleads “context” as proof that “justification of
life” in 5:18, refers to the ability for God to raise everyone from the dead,
even those who are condemned. He says he derives this from context, but nowhere
does he show how the context demands this. Papasmurph’s definition doesn’t make
sense in Romans 5, or the rest of the book for that matter. In 5:18
justification is set over against “condemnation”, a legal term referring to
someone’s status as a lawbreaker. In Christ, we are declared righteous before
that same Law. This make sense of the context. A humorous exercise would be to
say to yourself “ability to be raised form the dead” in every place where Paul
uses “justified” in Romans. It will show anyone who cares about handling the
text rightly, how bizarre Papasmurph’s interpretation is.
·
Romans 8-Man in the Flesh
We asked Papasmurph how he could include a true Christian
in his definition of “a natural man” in Romans 8. Rather than answer our
question, he once again proceeded to assert his position (and avoid completely
answering our question). I urge the reader to look at Micah’s question to
Papasmurph, and see if Papasmurph even tried to answer what was asked of him.
In addition to avoiding our question, he simply stated
again “Having said that, the natural man still has free will, so the syndrome
is not necessarily permanent or irreversible.” This is the entire issue under
debate. Rather than merely assert this, I beg Papasmurph (some time before the
end of this debate) to please prove this. He says this “condition” is neither
permanent nor irreversible. This is only partially. True, yes, this condition
is reversible, but only because in regeneration God enables man to once again
desire spiritual things, they are no loner foolishness to him (1 Cor. 2:14). In
his natural state, however, the text explicitly states that this condition is
in fact permanent. The natural man is none of Christ’s (8:9). His mind is
therefore set on the flesh, resulting in death (8:6). The natural man, who has
his mind set on the flesh, “can not please God”. This is the explicit testimony
of the text. Papasmurph has been asked repeatedly to answer this, and he
refuses to.
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For Another Man’s Sins?
Papasmurph objects to the idea of one man dying for
another’s sins. He says it is unjust. I would remind him that our Savior was
punished for another man’s sins. Papasmurph’s objection makes the atonement
impossible.